It is explicitly said in the NT that Jesus would only perform miracles with people had faith, as that around the Sea of Galilee He didn’t because the people there didn’t have faith. Sure God is sovereign and Jesus can do miracles whenever He wants, but it would seem this was a self-imposed rule. Now the question is this: was those people's faith a product of God, or something inherent to themselves? And if the latter why impose the rule in the first place. This is even more apparent in the OT where the decisions/choices of men either pleased or angered God. Were their choices a product of God or something inherent to themselves aka free will? In easier terms, which of the following cases is what is presented in the OT (and NT): A father gives 5 dollars to his son and asks him for 5 dollars, which the son gives to the father and thanks him for providing; the father tells his son to bring him 5 dollars, but leaves 5 dollars nearby, and the son may or may not see it, and may rip/use/leave the 5 dollars instead of giving it to the father; the father tells his son to bring 5 dollars and the son uses the talents and inherent human abilities to earn/obtain the 5 dollars to give to the father; the father tells his son to bring him 5 dollars and the son obtains 5 dollars from someone else other than the father or himself, or uses talents not taught by the father to earn/obtain the 5 dollars. Honestly I think every case can be found at least once in the Bible, or certain passages can be interpreted in more than one way, but direct literal and most simplistic interpretation of scripture seems to point to either the 2nd or 3rd scenarios most often. Note I'm talking about faith after conversion, not grace or salvation or how one becomes a Christian, but strictly how one obtains or increases faith.